Microbiology & Immunology

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Microbiology & Immunology focuses on the study of microorganisms and the immune system, explaining how microbes interact with living organisms and how the body defends itself against infections. This category is designed for Class 11–12 students, NEET aspirants, and undergraduate learners to build strong conceptual and applied understanding.

In this section, you will study:

  • Classification and characteristics of microorganisms

  • Structure and life cycles of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa

  • Beneficial and harmful roles of microorganisms

  • Principles of innate and acquired immunity

  • Cells and organs of the immune system

  • Antigens, antibodies, and immune responses

  • Vaccination and immunological memory

  • Basics of immune disorders and hypersensitivity

  • NCERT-based explanations, diagrams, MCQs, and exam-oriented questions

The content is structured to develop conceptual clarity, enhance diagram and mechanism-based understanding, and help students perform confidently in school examinations, NEET, and undergraduate assessments.

Build a strong foundation in microbiology and immunology to understand disease, immunity, and the biological basis of health and protection.

Q. A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent respiratory infections. Which immune component is most likely deficient?
  • A. B cells
  • B. T cells
  • C. Complement system
  • D. Phagocytes
Q. A 28-year-old woman presents with a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes. A rapid strep test is positive. What is the most likely causative agent?
  • A. Streptococcus pyogenes
  • B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • C. Haemophilus influenzae
  • D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q. A 30-year-old woman develops a urinary tract infection. A urine culture shows the presence of a gram-negative bacillus. Which organism is the most common cause of such infections?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Proteus mirabilis
  • C. Enterococcus faecalis
  • D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q. A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What type of immune response is primarily involved in this autoimmune disease?
  • A. Innate immune response
  • B. Humoral immune response
  • C. Cell-mediated immune response
  • D. Complement-mediated response
Q. A 45-year-old man presents with fever, cough, and chest pain. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. Which microorganism is most likely responsible for this condition?
  • A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • D. Legionella pneumophila
Q. A 50-year-old man presents with fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A biopsy of a lymph node reveals granulomas. Which infectious agent is most likely responsible?
  • A. Histoplasma capsulatum
  • B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • C. Coccidioides immitis
  • D. Brucella spp.
Q. A child is brought to the clinic with a rash, fever, and cough. The physician suspects measles. Which vaccine could have prevented this disease?
  • A. Inactivated polio vaccine
  • B. MMR vaccine
  • C. Hepatitis B vaccine
  • D. Diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine
Q. A child receives a measles vaccine. What type of immunity is conferred by this vaccination?
  • A. Passive immunity
  • B. Active immunity
  • C. Innate immunity
  • D. Natural immunity
Q. A culture shows a growth of 1,200 colonies after incubation. If the dilution factor was 1:100, what was the original concentration of bacteria in the sample?
  • A. 120,000 CFU/mL
  • B. 12,000 CFU/mL
  • C. 1,200 CFU/mL
  • D. 120 CFU/mL
Q. A laboratory technician is exposed to a needle stick injury from a patient with hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis?
  • A. Hepatitis B vaccine
  • B. Hepatitis A vaccine
  • C. Intravenous immunoglobulin
  • D. No treatment necessary
Q. A laboratory test shows that a patient has a viral load of 5,000 copies/mL. If the treatment reduces the viral load by 80%, what is the new viral load?
  • A. 1,000 copies/mL
  • B. 2,000 copies/mL
  • C. 3,000 copies/mL
  • D. 4,000 copies/mL
Q. A patient develops an allergic reaction after exposure to pollen. Which type of immune response is primarily involved?
  • A. Cell-mediated immunity
  • B. Humoral immunity
  • C. Innate immunity
  • D. Autoimmunity
Q. A patient is diagnosed with a bacterial infection and is prescribed antibiotics. If the bacteria have a resistance rate of 25%, what is the probability that a randomly selected bacterium is susceptible to the antibiotic?
  • A. 25%
  • B. 50%
  • C. 75%
  • D. 100%
Q. A patient presents with a sudden onset of high fever, chills, and a petechial rash. Blood cultures reveal Neisseria meningitidis. What is the most effective preventive measure?
  • A. Antibiotic prophylaxis
  • B. Meningococcal vaccine
  • C. Isolation of the patient
  • D. Intravenous immunoglobulin
Q. A patient presents with severe diarrhea and dehydration. Stool culture reveals the presence of a toxin-producing organism. Which organism is most likely responsible?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Clostridium difficile
  • C. Salmonella enterica
  • D. Vibrio cholerae
Q. A patient with a history of HIV presents with oral thrush and esophageal pain. What is the most likely causative organism?
  • A. Candida albicans
  • B. Aspergillus fumigatus
  • C. Cryptococcus neoformans
  • D. Histoplasma capsulatum
Q. A patient with a history of travel to tropical regions presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Which virus is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
  • A. Hepatitis A virus
  • B. Hepatitis B virus
  • C. Dengue virus
  • D. Yellow fever virus
Q. A patient with HIV is at risk for opportunistic infections. Which immune cells are primarily affected by the virus?
  • A. B cells
  • B. Cytotoxic T cells
  • C. Helper T cells
  • D. Natural killer cells
Q. How long should items be exposed to ethylene oxide gas for effective sterilization?
  • A. 1 hour
  • B. 4 hours
  • C. 8 hours
  • D. 12 hours
Q. How many days does it typically take for a primary immune response to peak after initial exposure to an antigen?
  • A. 1-2 days
  • B. 3-7 days
  • C. 10-14 days
  • D. 21-28 days
Q. How many different classes of antibodies are there in humans?
  • A. 2
  • B. 4
  • C. 5
  • D. 6
Q. How many minutes of exposure to 160°C dry heat is required for sterilization?
  • A. 30 minutes
  • B. 60 minutes
  • C. 90 minutes
  • D. 120 minutes
Q. If a disinfectant has a contact time of 10 minutes, how many times can it be used in an hour?
  • A. 4 times
  • B. 5 times
  • C. 6 times
  • D. 7 times
Q. If a pathogen has a doubling time of 30 minutes, how many bacteria will be present after 3 hours starting from a single bacterium?
  • A. 8
  • B. 16
  • C. 32
  • D. 64
Q. If a pathogen has an ID50 of 500 organisms, how many organisms are needed to infect 50% of a population of 1,000 individuals?
  • A. 250
  • B. 500
  • C. 1,000
  • D. 1,500
Q. If a patient has a bacterial load of 1,000,000 CFU/mL and a treatment reduces it by 99.9%, what is the remaining bacterial load?
  • A. 1 CFU/mL
  • B. 10 CFU/mL
  • C. 100 CFU/mL
  • D. 1,000 CFU/mL
Q. If a solution is diluted from 1000 ppm to 100 ppm, what is the dilution factor?
  • A. 1:10
  • B. 1:5
  • C. 1:20
  • D. 1:50
Q. If a sterilization cycle takes 30 minutes at 121°C, how long would it take at 134°C?
  • A. 10 minutes
  • B. 15 minutes
  • C. 20 minutes
  • D. 25 minutes
Q. If a vaccine has a 90% success rate and is administered to 500 individuals, how many individuals are expected to remain unprotected?
  • A. 50
  • B. 100
  • C. 200
  • D. 300
Q. In a case of septic shock, which immune response is primarily responsible for the symptoms observed?
  • A. Adaptive immune response
  • B. Innate immune response
  • C. Humoral immune response
  • D. Cell-mediated immune response
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